My Thoughts on Joshua (Yeshua) and Jesus in Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8
The whole issue of why some preachers refuse to be King James Only has to do with some translations. You may have noticed a lot of Hebrew names are translated into their Greek names. Get a King James Version (KJV) and maybe either a New International Version (NIV) or the English Standard Version (ESV). Both the KJV and the ESV are Calvinist translations. I was thinking of the names that were often translated into Greek from Hebrew such as Elijah to Elias, Isaiah to Esaias, Jeremiah to Jeremy, Zechariah to Zacharias, Miriam to Mary, and Joshua to Jesus. Speaking of Joshua to Jesus - I tend to skip that detail in the KJV.
We can see the name Jesus is the Greek for Joshua. I wonder why the translators of the KJV chose to translate certain names from Hebrew to Greek. David was still David. If Stephen were speaking in Hebrew then he would be saying Joshua. If the Book of Hebrews was written in Hebrew then there would be Joshua. Hebrews 4:8 in other translations uses Joshua which may have been to avoid confusion with Jesus of Nazareth. It wouldn't be wrong to call Jesus of Nazarath as Joshua of Nazareth or Yeshua of Nazareth. The name Jehovah from what I heard was an Anglicized version of Yahweh from the Old Testament. I hear that Yahweh was also spelled as Yahowah yet the name wasn't uttered by the Jews so casually because it meant the name of the LORD. Checking the Strong's Concordance - the word LORD is translated as Jehovah or Yahweh in Hebrew. So, I think the accusation that modern translators don't respect the name Jehovah is a lie. Spelling it out as LORD (all in capital letters) is simply a synonym for Jehovah. Genesis 22:14 has it Jehovah and LORD appear in the same verse. The KJV translators probably wanted to give references to Hebrew terms when they translated it.
Although I usually prefer to read from the KJV - it can get confusing at times. Which Jesus are you talking about? Are we talking about Jesus Christ or Jesus who is Joshua of the Old Testament. Why the Son of God is called either Christ Jesus or Jesus Christ is because Christ is the title. I remembered being told Christ is not His surname but His title. We don't really know the surname of David until this day. Otherwise, David would've probably been called David Christ and Joseph as Joseph Christ. Instead, Christ is taken from the Greek word Cristos (Χριστός) which means Messiah. It's pretty similar to how the title Buddha and Caesar are used. Buddha was not the surname of Siddharta Gautama or Gautama Buddha. Caesar was not the surname of Augustus Caesar but it was Octavius after his biological father. Calling the Roman emperors as caesar specified their title. In China, one's name came before one's title such as putting the Chinese word meaning "emperor" after one's chosen name. It's very unlike today where the title came first before the name. In today's English, it would be more grammatically correct to call Jesus Christ as Christ Jesus because Christ is His title and not His surname.
Although I usually prefer to read from the KJV - it can get confusing at times. Which Jesus are you talking about? Are we talking about Jesus Christ or Jesus who is Joshua of the Old Testament. Why the Son of God is called either Christ Jesus or Jesus Christ is because Christ is the title. I remembered being told Christ is not His surname but His title. We don't really know the surname of David until this day. Otherwise, David would've probably been called David Christ and Joseph as Joseph Christ. Instead, Christ is taken from the Greek word Cristos (Χριστός) which means Messiah. It's pretty similar to how the title Buddha and Caesar are used. Buddha was not the surname of Siddharta Gautama or Gautama Buddha. Caesar was not the surname of Augustus Caesar but it was Octavius after his biological father. Calling the Roman emperors as caesar specified their title. In China, one's name came before one's title such as putting the Chinese word meaning "emperor" after one's chosen name. It's very unlike today where the title came first before the name. In today's English, it would be more grammatically correct to call Jesus Christ as Christ Jesus because Christ is His title and not His surname.
Was the name Jesus a mistranslation? I would say that the idea is stupid. Reformation.org is not a reliable site especially with Patrick Scrivener's and messed up claims. I wonder if the guy drinks raw milk every morning and doesn't even sterilize his water? Saying Jesus is derived from Zeus is silly. Zeus is written as Ζεύς while Jesus is written as Iησοῦς which even the pronunciation is different. The name Jesus was taken from the Greek Joshua. As said, I have no problem with calling Jesus as Yeshua or Joshua of Nazareth because that's really His Hebrew name. The Chinese call Him as 耶稣基督 which is read as Ye1Su1 Ji1 Du which was probably because in their language always puts one's full name first before the title. I guess the KJV translators decided that it would be better to use the Greek names because the New Testament was written in Greek. However, later translators decided to spell out the Hebrew names for easier referencing.